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This one is from WorldQuant. I got the solution, but not sure if it's correct. Hope someone can confirm it for me. Here's the problem:
Let a and b are two real numbers. What is the probability that leading digit of a/b is 1. Leading digit in 0.001980 is 1.
My approach: We see that there are only 4 cases for the leading digit of a/b to be 1. Due to symmetry, we only need to calculate the sum of the probability of 2 of these 4 cases: when 0<a<b and when b<a<2b for b>0. We then multiple this sum by 2 to get the final answer.
Now, when 0<a<b, the probability that the leading digit of a/b is 1: 1/8*(1/10+1/10^2+1/10^3+...)=1/7 (1/8= probability that 0<a<b occurs)
When b<a<2b for b>0, the probability that the leading digit of a/b is 1= 1/16 (=probability that b<a<2b for b>0).
Therefore, the probability that the leading digit of a/b is 1 is: 2*(1/72+1/16)=11/72.
Let a and b are two real numbers. What is the probability that leading digit of a/b is 1. Leading digit in 0.001980 is 1.
My approach: We see that there are only 4 cases for the leading digit of a/b to be 1. Due to symmetry, we only need to calculate the sum of the probability of 2 of these 4 cases: when 0<a<b and when b<a<2b for b>0. We then multiple this sum by 2 to get the final answer.
Now, when 0<a<b, the probability that the leading digit of a/b is 1: 1/8*(1/10+1/10^2+1/10^3+...)=1/7 (1/8= probability that 0<a<b occurs)
When b<a<2b for b>0, the probability that the leading digit of a/b is 1= 1/16 (=probability that b<a<2b for b>0).
Therefore, the probability that the leading digit of a/b is 1 is: 2*(1/72+1/16)=11/72.