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The following content is from OPTIONS, FUTURES,AND OTHER DERIVATIVES 9th by John C. Hull P87
where R is the zero rate for a maturity of T. The value of [math]R_F[/math] obtained in this way is known as the instantaneous forward rate for a maturity of T. This is the forward rate that is applicable to a very short future time period that begins at time T. Define P(0,T) as the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T. Because [math]P(0,T)=e^{-RT}[/math],the equation for the instantaneous forward rate can also be written as[math]R_{F}=-\frac{\partial}{\partial T}\ln P(0,T)[/math]
My question is :Why the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T is [math]e^{-RT}[/math].
It looks more like the spot discount rate in period T, rather than the price. Even if we were to make a connection to the price, it would look more like the present price rather than the price at time T
For example:[math]p_0 = 100*e^{-RT}[/math]
where R is the zero rate for a maturity of T. The value of [math]R_F[/math] obtained in this way is known as the instantaneous forward rate for a maturity of T. This is the forward rate that is applicable to a very short future time period that begins at time T. Define P(0,T) as the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T. Because [math]P(0,T)=e^{-RT}[/math],the equation for the instantaneous forward rate can also be written as[math]R_{F}=-\frac{\partial}{\partial T}\ln P(0,T)[/math]
My question is :Why the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T is [math]e^{-RT}[/math].
It looks more like the spot discount rate in period T, rather than the price. Even if we were to make a connection to the price, it would look more like the present price rather than the price at time T
For example:[math]p_0 = 100*e^{-RT}[/math]