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In my opinion, the answer to question #5 should be \(P\approx 38.6\%\).
The reason is as follows:
To make a triangle, any of the three segments' lengths must not be greater than the sum of the two others. So let's first consider segment \(a\). Apparantly, \(a<1/2\), so that's a 50% probability.
Similarly, \(b<1/2\) and \(c<1/2\). But \(b+c=1-a\), so \(b,c>\frac{1}{2}-a\). It's easy to see that by letting \(\frac{1}{2}-a<b<1/2\), \(c\) automatically falls in the same range. Thus for a given \(a\), the probability to choose a proper \(b\) (and hence \(c\)) is given by \(\frac{1/2-(1/2-a)}{1-a}=\frac{a}{1-a}\).But \(a\) can range from 0 to 1/2, as previously shown. So the total (conditional) probability that \(a,b,c\) form a triangle is
\(\int_0^{1/2} \frac{a}{1-a} da \div 50\%= (-\frac{1}{2} + \ln 2) \times 2 \approx 38.6\%\).
The reason is as follows:
To make a triangle, any of the three segments' lengths must not be greater than the sum of the two others. So let's first consider segment \(a\). Apparantly, \(a<1/2\), so that's a 50% probability.
Similarly, \(b<1/2\) and \(c<1/2\). But \(b+c=1-a\), so \(b,c>\frac{1}{2}-a\). It's easy to see that by letting \(\frac{1}{2}-a<b<1/2\), \(c\) automatically falls in the same range. Thus for a given \(a\), the probability to choose a proper \(b\) (and hence \(c\)) is given by \(\frac{1/2-(1/2-a)}{1-a}=\frac{a}{1-a}\).But \(a\) can range from 0 to 1/2, as previously shown. So the total (conditional) probability that \(a,b,c\) form a triangle is
\(\int_0^{1/2} \frac{a}{1-a} da \div 50\%= (-\frac{1}{2} + \ln 2) \times 2 \approx 38.6\%\).
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